Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024

Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel i Authorised Version No. 001 Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 Authorised Version as at 7 September 2024 TABLE OF PROVISIONS Regulation Page Part 1—Preliminary 1 1 Objectives 1 2 Authorising provisions 1 3 Commencement 1 4 Revocation 2 5 Definitions 2 6 Application of these Regulations to traditional owner groups 7 7 Game Management Authority or Secretary may give written permission 8 Part 2—Game licences 9 Division 1—Applications, fees, licence documents and ballots 9 8 Application for a game licence 9 9 Game licence fees 10 10 Fee for variation of game licence 12 11 Issue of replacement game licence 12 12 Licence document 13 13 Change of address 13 14 Ballots 13 Division 2—Testing 14 15 Granting of game licence for duck 14 16 Waterfowl Identification Test 14 17 Granting of game licence for hunting Sambar Deer with the use of hounds 14 18 Sambar Deer Hunting with Hounds Test 15 Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Regulation Page ii Division 3—Exemptions from certain application requirements in specified cases 15 19 Exemption from requirement to undertake testing for non-residents of Australia 15 20 Exemption from requirement to undertake testing for certain applicants aged 12 years or over but under 18 years 16 Division 4—Conditions of game licences 16 21 Condition of game licence that allows a person to hunt or take Sambar Deer with the use of hounds or to destroy Sambar Deer 16 22 Condition of game licence that allows a person to hunt, take or destroy non-indigenous game birds on a game bird farm 18 23 Condition of certain game licences that allow certain persons to hunt, take or destroy duck 18 24 Condition of certain game licences that allow certain persons to hunt or take Sambar Deer with the use of hounds or to destroy Sambar Deer 19 Division 5—Hounds 20 25 Hounds used for hunting or taking Sambar Deer must be registered with the Game Management Authority 20 26 Registration of a hound 20 27 Change of ownership of registered hound 21 28 Presentation of hound to Game Management Authority for inspection 21 29 Game Management Authority may cancel registration of a hound 21 30 Game Management Authority may suspend registration of a hound 23 31 Making a submission on suspension of the registration of a hound and review of suspension 24 Part 3—Open and close seasons and bag limits 25 32 Close season 25 33 Open season 25 34 Bag limit 25 Part 4—Hunting methods 26 Division 1—Use of firearms 26 35 Twelve-gauge shotgun to be used when hunting game birds 26 36 Use of toxic shot 26 37 Possession of toxic shot 26 38 Approved methods for hunting deer (other than Hog Deer, Chital Deer or Fallow Deer) 27 39 Approved methods for hunting Hog Deer, Chital Deer or Fallow Deer 29 Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Regulation Page iii 40 Possession of spotlight and firearm 30 Division 2—Use of dogs and hounds 32 41 Use of dogs when hunting game birds 32 42 Use of dogs for hunting deer 34 43 Hunting alone for deer (other than Hog Deer) with dogs that are not hounds 35 44 Hunting in a team for deer (other than Hog Deer) with dogs that are not hounds 36 45 Dogs must not attack, bite or maim wildlife 37 46 Use of dogs in recognised deer habitat 37 47 Location of hound while hunting Sambar Deer 38 48 Hound must be identified 39 Division 3—General 39 49 Use of spotlights for hunting 39 50 Game fleeing from fire or smoke not to be hunted 40 51 Hunting at night prohibited 40 52 Additional prohibited hunting times—ducks 41 53 Use of baits, lures and decoys when hunting game 41 54 Aircraft and motor vehicles not to be used for hunting game 43 55 Hunting duck from motor boats prohibited 44 Part 5—Possession and handling of game 46 56 Game alive when recovered 46 57 Downed game birds to be recovered 46 58 Deer alive when struck 46 59 Breast meat of game bird to be kept in possession 46 60 Possession of duck 47 61 Storage of game on commercial premises 48 62 Game prohibited on commercial premises where food is cooked 49 63 Sale of game prohibited unless obtained lawfully 50 Part 6—Hog Deer and Hog Deer tags 52 Division 1—Hog Deer 52 64 Hog Deer in possession must be tagged 52 65 Requirement to attach tags to Hog Deer killed 53 66 Hog Deer not to be removed until tag is attached 53 67 Removal of Hog Deer tags 54 68 Removal of Hog Deer head and dismemberment 54 69 Hog Deer carcass to be taken to checking station 55 Division 2—Hog Deer tags 56 70 Application for Hog Deer tags 56 71 Issue of Hog Deer tags 56 72 Validity of Hog Deer tags 56 Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Regulation Page iv 73 Hog Deer tags to be in possession 57 74 Hog Deer tags not to be sold etc. 57 75 Hog Deer tags not to be altered, defaced or reproduced 57 76 Hog Deer return forms 57 Part 7—Specified hunting areas and specified times—open season for duck 59 77 Specified hunting areas 59 78 Prohibited entry times 59 Part 8—Deer hunting areas 60 79 Prohibited deer hunting areas 60 80 Areas for hunting Sambar Deer with the use of hounds 60 Schedule 1—Close seasons for game 62 Schedule 2—Open seasons for game 64 Schedule 3—Bag limits for game 66 Schedule 4—Approved dogs for hunting 68 Schedule 5—Recognised deer habitat 70 Schedule 6—Shot which is not toxic shot 72 Schedule 7—Specified hunting areas 74 Schedule 8—Prohibited deer hunting areas 76 Schedule 9—Hunting Sambar Deer with the use of hounds 81 Schedule 10—Game birds 85 ═════════════ Endnotes 87 1 General information 87 2 Table of Amendments 89 3 Explanatory details 90 Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel 1 Authorised Version No. 001 Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 Authorised Version as at 7 September 2024 Part 1—Preliminary 1 Objectives The objectives of these Regulations are— (a) to provide for the effective management of game species and game hunting in Victoria; and (b) to make further provision for the procedure for granting and administering game licences; and (c) to make further provision for open and close seasons and bag limits; and (d) to regulate methods of hunting; and (e) to provide for the identification, possession and handling of game; and (f) to make further provision for specified hunting areas. 2 Authorising provisions These Regulations are made under sections 22A, 58C and 87 of the Wildlife Act 1975. 3 Commencement These Regulations come into operation on 7 September 2024. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 1—Preliminary Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 2 4 Revocation The Wildlife (Game) Interim Regulations 20231 are revoked. 5 Definitions In these Regulations— adult hunter means a person who is 18 years of age or over and who is the holder of a game licence; agreed activity has the same meaning as in section 79 of the Traditional Owner Settlement Act 2010; bag limit, in relation to a taxon of game, means the bag limit prescribed by these Regulations for that taxon of game; blank ammunition means ammunition that is not cartridge ammunition; cartridge ammunition has the same meaning as in section 3(1) of the Firearms Act 1996; deer hunting dog means a dog from a breed listed in Part 3 of Schedule 4; downed, in relation to a game bird, means the bird— (a) has been brought to the ground as a result of being shot; or (b) has been shot on the ground; electronic acoustic lure means an electronic device made or constructed to emit— (a) a sound that resembles or represents a sound made by a game bird; or Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 1—Preliminary Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 3 (b) a call resembling the call of a game bird— but does not include a mouth-blown or shaker style caller; established pest animal has the same meaning as in the Catchment and Land Protection Act 1994; game bird means any taxon of bird listed in Schedule 10; game bird farm means a farm operated by the holder of a game bird farmer licence within the meaning of the Wildlife Regulations 20242; ground includes land, water and any vegetation or other thing on the land or water; gundog means a dog from a breed listed in Part 1 of Schedule 4; Hog Deer tag means a tag that is issued in accordance with regulation 71; hound means a dog from a breed referred to in Part 2 of Schedule 4 that conforms to— (a) the maximum height specified in that Part of that Schedule for that breed; and (b) the following standard that applies to that breed, other than any specification relating to height in that standard— (i) Extended Breed Standard of the Beagle, published by the National Beagle Council (Australia) and the Australian National Kennel Council, as formulated, issued, prescribed or published from time to time; Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 1—Preliminary Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 4 (ii) Bloodhound Breed Standard, published by the Australian National Kennel Council, as formulated, issued, prescribed or published from time to time; (iii) Harrier Breed Standard, published by the Australian National Kennel Council, as formulated, issued, prescribed or published from time to time; hound possessor means a person who keeps or harbours a hound or has a hound in the person's care, whether the hound is at large, is restrained or is in confinement; motor boat means a boat which has at least one motor fitted or attached which, when operating, is capable of propelling the boat, and includes any craft known as an "airboat" or "hovercraft"; park has the same meaning as in the National Parks Act 1975; possession, in relation to shot, a magazine, ammunition, a firearm or a spotlight, includes any of the following— (a) physical possession of the shot, magazine, ammunition, firearm or spotlight; (b) custody or control of the shot, magazine, ammunition, firearm or spotlight; (c) access to the shot, magazine, ammunition, firearm or spotlight, either solely or in common with others; Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 1—Preliminary Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 5 prescribed permanent identification device has the same meaning as in the Domestic Animals Act 1994; recognised deer habitat means an area referred to in Schedule 5; registered hound means a hound that is registered by the Game Management Authority under regulation 26(1); Sambar Deer Hunting with Hounds Test means a test that is conducted by the Game Management Authority under regulation 18(1); secured in a vehicle, in relation to a firearm, a magazine, ammunition or shot, means— (a) in the case of a vehicle with a boot or storage area (that is not a glove box), being in a securely fastened case or container locked in the boot or stowed in a storage area of the vehicle that is not readily accessible by an occupant of the vehicle; or (b) in the case of a vehicle without a boot or other storage area (that is not a glove box), being in a securely fastened case or container stowed in a part of the vehicle that is not readily accessible by any occupant of the vehicle; spotlight means— (a) a source of artificial light; or (b) an infrared device; or (c) a night viewing device; or Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 1—Preliminary Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 6 (d) a thermo-imaging device— but does not include— (e) a domestic source of light used for domestic purposes; or (f) an emergency source of light used for emergency purposes; or (g) a light fitted to a motor vehicle that complies with any requirement in the Road Safety (Vehicles) Regulations 20213 relating to a light of that kind; State Game Reserve means an area classified as a State Game Reserve under section 15(2) of the Act; take means to gain possession or control of wildlife by any means and also includes causing, permitting or assisting in taking wildlife; the Act means the Wildlife Act 1975; toxic shot means shot which is not of a class or type described in Schedule 6; traditional owner group agreement means an agreement under Part 6 of the Traditional Owner Settlement Act 2010; traditional owner group entity has the same meaning as in the Traditional Owner Settlement Act 2010; Waterfowl Identification Test means a test that is conducted by the Game Management Authority under regulation 16(1); waterway means— (a) a river, creek, stream or watercourse; or Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 1—Preliminary Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 7 (b) a natural channel in which water regularly flows, whether or not the flow is continuous; or (c) a channel formed wholly or partly by the alteration or relocation of any such river, creek, stream, watercourse or channel. 6 Application of these Regulations to traditional owner groups (1) If a traditional owner group entity has entered into a traditional owner group agreement, any provision of these Regulations (other than a provision specified in subregulation (2)) that provides for an offence to carry out an agreed activity under that agreement does not apply to a member of a traditional owner group— (a) who is bound by the agreement; and (b) who carries out the agreed activity to which the offence relates in accordance with the agreement and on land to which the agreement applies. (2) For the purposes of subregulation (1), the following provisions are specified— (a) regulation 36; (b) regulation 37(1), (2) and (3); (c) regulation 40(1), (2) and (3); (d) regulation 45; (e) regulation 49(1); (f) regulation 51(1); (g) regulation 53(1), if the member hunts, takes or destroys game using an electronic acoustic lure to attract game; Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 1—Preliminary Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 8 (h) regulation 53(4), if the member causes, permits or assists in the hunting, taking or destroying of game using an electronic acoustic lure to attract game; (i) regulation 54(1) and (2); (j) regulation 55(1) and (3). 7 Game Management Authority or Secretary may give written permission (1) The Game Management Authority may give written permission to a person to carry out an activity specified in the permission for the purposes of the following regulations— (a) regulation 41; (b) regulation 42; (c) regulation 46; (d) regulation 62; (e) regulation 68. (2) The Secretary may give written permission to a person to carry out an activity specified in the permission for the purposes of regulation 47. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 2—Game licences Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 9 Part 2—Game licences Division 1—Applications, fees, licence documents and ballots 8 Application for a game licence (1) A person applying for a game licence must do so in the form provided for that purpose by the Game Management Authority. (2) A person who is applying for a game licence must— (a) set out in the application— (i) the applicant's name; and (ii) the applicant's residential address; and (iii) the applicant's telephone number (if any); and (iv) the applicant's email address (if any); and (v) details of any findings of guilt against the applicant for offences under the Act, the Firearms Act 1996, the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act 1986, the National Parks Act 1975 or any corresponding law of another State or a Territory relating to game hunting during the 10 years preceding the application; and (vi) the taxon or taxa of game for which the licence is required; and Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 2—Game licences Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 10 (b) provide with the application— (i) evidence to verify the applicant's name and residential address; and Example A copy of the person's driver's licence. (ii) the fee to be paid for the licence under regulation 9; and (iii) any information required by the Game Management Authority for the purposes of determining the application. 9 Game licence fees (1) Subject to subregulations (2) and (3), the fees to be paid to the Game Management Authority by an applicant for a game licence referred to in Column 1 of the Table of game licence fees is the amount set out opposite that licence in Column 2 of the Table. Table of game licence fees Column 1 Licence Column 2 Fee A game licence that allows the hunting, taking or destroying of game birds 5⸱44 fee units per year or part year A game licence that allows the hunting, taking or destroying of deer 5⸱44 fee units per year or part year A game licence that allows the hunting, taking or destroying of game birds and deer 9⸱2 fee units per year or part year A game licence that allows the hunting, taking or destroying of non-indigenous game birds on a game bird farm Nil Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 2—Game licences Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 11 Column 1 Licence Column 2 Fee A game licence that allows the hunting, taking or destroying of deer by a non-resident of Australia 5⸱44 fee units per part year A game licence that allows the hunting, taking or destroying of game birds by a non-resident of Australia 5⸱44 fee units per part year A game licence that allows the hunting, taking or destroying of game birds and deer by a non-resident of Australia 9⸱2 fee units per part year A game licence for one open season that allows the hunting, taking or destroying of duck by a person who is 12 years of age or over but under 18 years of age Nil A game licence for one open season that allows the hunting or taking of Sambar Deer with the use of hounds or the destroying of Sambar Deer by a person who is 12 years of age or over but under 18 years of age Nil (2) If an applicant for a game licence satisfies the Game Management Authority that the applicant is an eligible recipient within the meaning of the State Concessions Act 2004, the fee to be paid for a game licence is half that of the fee to be paid under subregulation (1). (3) Despite subregulation (1), the fee for a game licence for an applicant who is under 18 years of age is nil fee units. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 2—Game licences Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 12 (4) A person who holds a game licence referred to in Column 1 of the Table of game licence fees in subregulation (1) who applies to have the licence varied to another kind of game licence listed in that Column must pay the difference, if any, between the fees for the relevant categories of game licence listed in the Table in addition to the variation fee payable under regulation 10. 10 Fee for variation of game licence The fee for an application for a variation of a game licence is 1 fee unit. 11 Issue of replacement game licence (1) The Game Management Authority may issue a game licence to replace a game licence which has been stolen, lost, damaged or destroyed. (2) A holder of a game licence who applies for a replacement game licence may be required by the Game Management Authority— (a) to set out in the application— (i) the licence holder's name; and (ii) the licence holder's residential address; and (iii) the licence holder's telephone number (if any); and (iv) the licence holder's email address (if any); and (b) to provide with the application— (i) evidence to verify the licence holder's name and residential address; and Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 2—Game licences Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 13 (ii) any information required by the Game Management Authority for the purposes of issuing a replacement game licence; and (iii) a fee of 1 fee unit. 12 Licence document If the Game Management Authority has granted a game licence to a person, the Game Management Authority may issue a document to that person as evidence of that fact. 13 Change of address A person who holds a game licence must notify the Game Management Authority of any change to the person's residential address within 14 days after changing address. Penalty: 2 penalty units. 14 Ballots (1) For the purposes of section 22A(4A) of the Act, a ballot may be conducted by the Game Management Authority in accordance with this regulation. (2) The Game Management Authority must publish notice of a ballot proposed to be conducted under subregulation (1) on the website of the Game Management Authority at least 5 business days before the ballot is drawn, including the process for conducting that ballot. (3) A holder of a game licence to hunt game is eligible to participate in a ballot conducted under subregulation (1) if the ballot relates to the hunting of game authorised under the licence, unless that person is an employee of or engaged by the Game Management Authority. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 2—Game licences Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 14 (4) The holder of a game licence who wishes to participate in a ballot may enter the ballot only once. (5) The Game Management Authority must notify a successful ballot entrant in writing within 10 business days after the ballot is drawn. Division 2—Testing 15 Granting of game licence for duck Subject to regulations 19(1) and 20(1), a person applying for a game licence, or for a variation to a game licence, that allows the hunting, taking or destroying of duck must undertake and obtain a pass in the Waterfowl Identification Test at a percentage rate determined by the Game Management Authority. 16 Waterfowl Identification Test (1) The Game Management Authority may conduct a test in relation to hunting duck which includes the identification of taxa of waterfowl and other waterbirds. (2) A person who is required to undertake the Waterfowl Identification Test must pay a fee of 2 fee units to the Game Management Authority. 17 Granting of game licence for hunting Sambar Deer with the use of hounds Subject to regulations 19(2) and 20(2), a person applying for a game licence, or for a variation to a game licence, that allows the hunting or taking of Sambar Deer with the use of hounds or the destroying of Sambar Deer must undertake and obtain a pass in the Sambar Deer Hunting with Hounds Test at a percentage rate determined by the Game Management Authority. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 2—Game licences Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 15 18 Sambar Deer Hunting with Hounds Test (1) The Game Management Authority may conduct a test in relation to hunting Sambar Deer with the use of hounds which includes the following matters— (a) understanding the Act, these Regulations and the law relating to hunting deer; (b) the identification of Sambar Deer and other deer; (c) principles for the use of firearms, bows or crossbows, or all of these, for hunting deer; (d) the ethics of hunting; (e) any other matter relevant to hunting deer determined by the Game Management Authority. (2) A person who is required to undertake the Sambar Deer Hunting with Hounds Test must pay a fee of 2 fee units to the Game Management Authority. Division 3—Exemptions from certain application requirements in specified cases 19 Exemption from requirement to undertake testing for non-residents of Australia (1) An applicant for a game licence that allows the hunting, taking or destroying of duck who is a non-resident of Australia is exempt from the requirement set out in regulation 15. (2) An applicant for a game licence that allows the hunting or taking of Sambar Deer with the use of hounds or the destroying of Sambar Deer who is a non-resident of Australia is exempt from the requirement set out in regulation 17. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 2—Game licences Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 16 20 Exemption from requirement to undertake testing for certain applicants aged 12 years or over but under 18 years (1) An applicant for a game licence that allows the hunting, taking or destroying of duck is exempt from the requirement set out in regulation 15 if the applicant— (a) is 12 years of age or over but under 18 years of age; and (b) has not previously held a game licence that allows the hunting, taking or destroying of duck. (2) An applicant for a game licence that allows the hunting or taking of Sambar Deer with the use of hounds or the destroying of Sambar Deer is exempt from the requirement set out in regulation 17 if the applicant— (a) is 12 years of age or over but under 18 years of age; and (b) has not previously held a game licence that allows the hunting or taking of Sambar Deer with the use of hounds or the destroying of Sambar Deer. Division 4—Conditions of game licences 21 Condition of game licence that allows a person to hunt or take Sambar Deer with the use of hounds or to destroy Sambar Deer (1) For the purposes of section 22A(3) of the Act, a game licence that allows a person to hunt or take Sambar Deer with the use of hounds or to destroy Sambar Deer is subject to the condition that the person must not do so while hunting alone unless the person is using, at the time of hunting— Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 2—Game licences Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 17 (a) not more than 5 hounds; or (b) not more than 8 hounds, of which 3 hounds must be under 12 months of age and being trained to hunt or take Sambar Deer. (2) For the purposes of section 22A(3) of the Act, a game licence that allows a person to hunt or take Sambar Deer with the use of hounds or to destroy Sambar Deer is subject to the condition that the person must not do so while hunting as part of a team unless— (a) the team is using, at the time of hunting— (i) not more than 5 hounds; or (ii) not more than 8 hounds, of which 3 hounds must be under 12 months of age and being trained to hunt or take Sambar Deer; and (b) the team consists of— (i) not more than 10 persons, each of whom is the holder of a game licence that allows the person to hunt or take Sambar Deer with the use of hounds or to destroy Sambar Deer; or (ii) not more than 12 persons, each of whom is the holder of a game licence that allows the person to hunt or take Sambar Deer with the use of hounds or to destroy Sambar Deer, of which 2 persons must hold a game licence that is subject to a condition under regulation 24(1) or (2). Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 2—Game licences Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 18 22 Condition of game licence that allows a person to hunt, take or destroy non-indigenous game birds on a game bird farm For the purposes of section 22A(3) of the Act, a game licence that allows a person to hunt, take or destroy non-indigenous game birds specified in Part 4 of Schedule 2 on a game bird farm is subject to the condition that the person must not hunt, take or destroy game birds of that kind other than on a game bird farm. 23 Condition of certain game licences that allow certain persons to hunt, take or destroy duck (1) For the purposes of section 22A(3) of the Act, a game licence that allows a person to hunt, take or destroy duck and that is granted to an applicant referred to in regulation 19(1) is subject to the condition that the person must not hunt, take or destroy duck unless the person does so under the direct supervision of an adult hunter who— (a) is the holder of a game licence that allows the adult hunter to hunt, take or destroy duck; and (b) has obtained a pass in the Waterfowl Identification Test at a percentage rate determined by the Game Management Authority. (2) For the purposes of section 22A(3) of the Act, a game licence that allows a person to hunt, take or destroy duck and that is granted to an applicant referred to in regulation 20(1) is subject to the condition that the person must not hunt, take or destroy duck unless the person does so under the direct supervision of an adult hunter who— (a) is the holder of a game licence that allows the adult hunter to hunt, take or destroy duck; and Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 2—Game licences Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 19 (b) has obtained a pass in the Waterfowl Identification Test at a percentage rate determined by the Game Management Authority. 24 Condition of certain game licences that allow certain persons to hunt or take Sambar Deer with the use of hounds or to destroy Sambar Deer (1) For the purposes of section 22A(3) of the Act, a game licence that allows a person to hunt or take Sambar Deer with the use of hounds or to destroy Sambar Deer and that is granted to an applicant referred to in regulation 19(2) is subject to the condition that the person must not hunt or take Sambar Deer with the use of hounds or destroy Sambar Deer unless the person does so under the direct supervision of an adult hunter who— (a) is the holder of a game licence that allows the adult hunter to hunt or take Sambar Deer with the use of hounds or to destroy Sambar Deer; and (b) has obtained a pass in the Sambar Deer Hunting with Hounds test at a percentage rate determined by the Game Management Authority. (2) For the purposes of section 22A(3) of the Act, a game licence that allows a person to hunt or take Sambar Deer with the use of hounds or to destroy Sambar Deer and that is granted to an applicant referred to in regulation 20(2) is subject to the condition that the person must not hunt or take Sambar Deer with the use of hounds or destroy Sambar Deer unless the person does so under the direct supervision of an adult hunter who— Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 2—Game licences Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 20 (a) is the holder of a game licence that allows the adult hunter to hunt or take Sambar Deer with the use of hounds or to destroy Sambar Deer; and (b) has obtained a pass in the Sambar Deer Hunting with Hounds Test at a percentage rate determined by the Game Management Authority. Division 5—Hounds 25 Hounds used for hunting or taking Sambar Deer must be registered with the Game Management Authority For the purposes of section 22A(3) of the Act, a game licence that allows a person to hunt or take Sambar Deer with the use of hounds is subject to the condition that the person must not use a hound for hunting or taking Sambar Deer unless that hound is a registered hound. 26 Registration of a hound (1) On application by the owner of a hound, the Game Management Authority may register a hound if— (a) the Game Management Authority has consulted with a person or body with relevant expertise in assessing compliance against the relevant breed standard and the maximum height requirements set out in Part 2 of Schedule 4; and (b) the hound is identified by the implantation of a prescribed permanent identification device in accordance with the Domestic Animals Regulations 20154. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 2—Game licences Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 21 (2) Unless sooner cancelled, suspended or surrendered, the registration of a hound remains in force until the ownership of the hound is transferred to another person. 27 Change of ownership of registered hound The owner of a registered hound must notify the Game Management Authority within 14 days of transferring ownership of that hound to another person. Penalty: 2 penalty units 28 Presentation of hound to Game Management Authority for inspection (1) Subject to subregulation (2), the Game Management Authority, by written notice given to the owner of a registered hound, may request that the owner present that hound for inspection by the Game Management Authority at the time and place reasonably specified by the Game Management Authority in the notice. (2) The time specified in a notice issued by the Game Management Authority under subregulation (1) must be no less than 28 days after the notice is given to the owner of the hound. 29 Game Management Authority may cancel registration of a hound (1) The Game Management Authority may cancel the registration of a hound, by written notice given to the owner of the hound, if the Game Management Authority is satisfied on reasonable grounds that— (a) the dog is not a hound; or (b) the owner of the hound knowingly provided false or misleading information with the application for registration of the hound; or Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 2—Game licences Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 22 (c) the hound has been found in circumstances that appear to constitute a contravention of regulation 47; or (d) the owner of the hound has been found guilty of an offence against the Act or these Regulations in respect of the hound; or (e) the hound no longer complies with the condition of registration under regulation 26(1)(b); or (f) the owner of the hound has not complied with a notice under regulation 28. (2) Before cancelling the registration of a hound, the Game Management Authority must— (a) notify the owner of the hound that the Game Management Authority proposes to cancel the registration; and (b) allow the owner of the hound an opportunity to make a written submission to the Game Management Authority. (3) A submission under subregulation (2) must be made within the period specified in the notice. (4) In deciding whether or not to cancel the registration of a hound, the Game Management Authority must— (a) have regard to any submission made under subregulation (2) within the period specified in the notice; and (b) notify the owner of the hound of the Game Management Authority's decision. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 2—Game licences Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 23 30 Game Management Authority may suspend registration of a hound (1) The Game Management Authority may suspend the registration of a hound, by written notice given to the owner of the hound, if the Game Management Authority is satisfied on reasonable grounds that— (a) the dog is not a hound; or (b) the owner of the hound knowingly provided false or misleading information with the application for registration of the hound; or (c) the hound has been found in circumstances that appear to constitute a contravention of regulation 47; or (d) the owner of the hound has been found guilty of an offence against the Act or these Regulations in respect of the hound; or (e) the hound no longer complies with the condition of registration under regulation 26(1)(b); or (f) the owner of the hound, has not complied with a notice under regulation 28. (2) A suspension under this regulation has effect— (a) from the time specified in the notice given under subregulation (1), which must be after the day on which the notice is given; and (b) subject to regulation 31, for the period (not exceeding 90 days) specified in the notice. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 2—Game licences Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 24 31 Making a submission on suspension of the registration of a hound and review of suspension (1) On suspending the registration of a hound, the Game Management Authority must allow the owner of the hound an opportunity to make a written submission. (2) A submission must be made within the period specified in the notice of suspension. (3) On receiving a submission in accordance with subregulation (2), the Game Management Authority must review the decision to suspend the registration, and in doing so must have regard to the submission and may decide— (a) not to revoke or amend the suspension; or (b) to revoke or amend the suspension. (4) The Game Management Authority must notify the owner of the hound of the outcome of the review. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 3—Open and close seasons and bag limits Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 25 Part 3—Open and close seasons and bag limits 32 Close season For the purposes of paragraph (b) of the definition of close season in section 3(1) of the Act, the close season for a kind or taxon of game is set out in Schedule 1. 33 Open season For the purposes of paragraph (c) of the definition of open season in section 3(1) of the Act, the open season for a kind or taxon of game is set out in Schedule 2. 34 Bag limit (1) For a kind or taxon of game set out in Column 2 of Schedule 3, a person must not take or destroy more than the number of game specified in Column 4 of Schedule 3 as the bag limit for that kind or taxon of game in the period set out in Column 4 of Schedule 3 for that kind or taxon of game. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who is— (a) carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or (b) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; or (c) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 4—Hunting methods Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 26 Part 4—Hunting methods Division 1—Use of firearms 35 Twelve-gauge shotgun to be used when hunting game birds (1) A person must not hunt, take or destroy game birds other than with a firearm that is a shotgun having a gauge that is not greater than 12. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who is— (a) carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or (b) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; or (c) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order. 36 Use of toxic shot A person must not use toxic shot to hunt, take or destroy game birds. Penalty: 20 penalty units. 37 Possession of toxic shot (1) A person must not be in possession of toxic shot in the course of hunting game birds. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (2) A person must not be in possession of toxic shot within an area in which the person intends to hunt game birds. Penalty: 20 penalty units. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 4—Hunting methods Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 27 (3) A person must not be in possession of toxic shot within a State Game Reserve. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (4) Subregulations (1), (2) and (3) do not apply to a person who is in possession of toxic shot that is secured in a vehicle. (5) Subregulations (1), (2) and (3) do not apply to a person who is— (a) carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or (b) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; or (c) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order. 38 Approved methods for hunting deer (other than Hog Deer, Chital Deer or Fallow Deer) (1) A person must not hunt, take or destroy deer (other than Hog Deer, Chital Deer or Fallow Deer) other than by the use of— (a) a firearm that is a centre-fire rifle having a calibre of not less than 685 millimetres (0270 inches), with a projectile weight of not less than 845 grams (130 grains); or (b) a firearm that is a muzzle-loading rifle having a calibre of not less than 1145 millimetres (045 inches), with a projectile weight of not less than 1491 grams (230 grains); or (c) a long bow, recurve bow or compound bow having a draw-weight of not less than 225 kilograms (50 pounds), using an arrow with a broad-head having a combined Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 4—Hunting methods Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 28 minimum weight of not less than 26 grams (400 grains) and a minimum of 2 sharpened cutting blades; or (d) a cross-bow having a draw-weight of not less than 68 kilograms (150 pounds), using a bolt with a broad-head having a combined minimum weight of not less than 26 grams (400 grains) and a minimum of 2 sharpened cutting blades; or (e) a firearm of not less than 20 bore, and not greater than 12 bore, with a single solid projectile having a weight of not less than 15·88 grams (245 grains), and that firearm must be fitted with— (i) a front and rear iron sight (other than a beaded sight or beaded sights); or (ii) a telescopic sight; or (iii) a reflex sight. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who is— (a) carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or (b) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; or (c) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 4—Hunting methods Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 29 39 Approved methods for hunting Hog Deer, Chital Deer or Fallow Deer (1) A person must not hunt, take or destroy Hog Deer, Chital Deer or Fallow Deer other than by the use of— (a) a firearm that is a centre-fire rifle having a calibre of not less than 617 millimetres (0243 inches), with a projectile weight of not less than 518 grams (80 grains); or (b) a firearm that is a muzzle-loading rifle having a calibre of not less than 965 millimetres (038 inches), with a projectile weight of not less than 1296 grams (200 grains); or (c) a long bow, recurve bow or compound bow having a draw-weight of not less than 20 kilograms (45 pounds), using an arrow with a broad-head having a combined minimum weight of not less than 225 grams (350 grains) and a minimum of 2 sharpened cutting blades; or (d) a cross-bow having a draw-weight of not less than 544 kilograms (120 pounds), using a bolt with a broad-head having a combined minimum weight of not less than 225 grams (350 grains) and a minimum of 2 sharpened cutting blades; or (e) a firearm of not less than 20 bore, and not greater than 12 bore, with a single solid projectile having a weight of not less than 15·88 grams (245 grains), and that firearm must be fitted with— (i) a front and rear iron sight (other than a beaded sight or beaded sights); or Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 4—Hunting methods Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 30 (ii) a telescopic sight; or (iii) a reflex sight. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who is— (a) carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or (b) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; or (c) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order. 40 Possession of spotlight and firearm (1) A person must not be in possession of a spotlight and a firearm in recognised deer habitat from 30 minutes after sunset until 30 minutes before sunrise. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (2) A person must not be in possession of a spotlight and be in the company of a person in possession of a firearm in recognised deer habitat from 30 minutes after sunset until 30 minutes before sunrise. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (3) A person must not be in possession of a firearm and be in the company of a person in possession of a spotlight in recognised deer habitat from 30 minutes after sunset until 30 minutes before sunrise. Penalty: 20 penalty units. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 4—Hunting methods Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 31 (4) Subregulations (1), (2) and (3) do not apply to a person who is— (a) in the process of controlling established pest animals within 250 metres outside of the boundary of freehold land which is owned or occupied by that person or a person for whom that person acts as an agent; or (b) in the company of a person referred to in paragraph (a); or (c) the holder of an authorisation under section 28A of the Act and acting in accordance with that authorisation; or (d) acting in accordance with an authorisation order; or (e) acting in accordance with an Order under section 7A of the Act; or (f) in a vehicle in which there is a firearm, a magazine or ammunition and— (i) the firearm is unloaded and secured in the vehicle; and (ii) the magazine is unloaded and secured in the vehicle; and (iii) the ammunition is secured in the vehicle; and (iv) any spotlight that is in or on the vehicle is not in use; or (g) on foot and in possession of a firearm, a magazine or ammunition and— (i) the firearm is unloaded; and (ii) the magazine is unloaded; and (iii) the ammunition is stored in a closed case or container; and Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 4—Hunting methods Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 32 (iv) any spotlight is not fitted to the firearm, or fixture attached to the firearm. Division 2—Use of dogs and hounds 41 Use of dogs when hunting game birds (1) A person must not use a dog when hunting, taking or destroying game birds. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who, when hunting, taking or destroying game birds during an open season for game birds, uses— (a) gundogs to locate, flush, point or retrieve game birds; or (b) gundogs in any field trials conducted by an organisation approved by the Game Management Authority. (3) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who, when hunting, taking or destroying game birds during a close season for game birds— (a) uses gundogs being trained to locate, point or flush game birds; and (b) ensures that any person accompanying the gundogs being trained— (i) is not carrying or using any firearm other than a starter's pistol or a shotgun with blank ammunition; and (ii) is not in possession of any cartridge ammunition. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 4—Hunting methods Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 33 (4) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who, when using, hunting, taking or destroying game birds during an open season for game birds, uses a dog that is not a gundog under and in accordance with a written permission from the Game Management Authority. (5) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who is— (a) carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or (b) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; or (c) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order. (6) A person must not cause or permit a dog to be used when hunting, taking or destroying game birds. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (7) Subregulation (6) does not apply to a person who, when hunting, taking or destroying game birds during an open season for game birds, causes or permits— (a) gundogs to be used to locate, flush, point or retrieve game birds; or (b) gundogs to be used in any field trials conducted by an organisation approved by the Game Management Authority. (8) Subregulation (6) does not apply to a person who, when hunting, taking or destroying game birds during a close season for game birds— (a) causes or permits gundogs to be trained to locate, point or flush game birds; and Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 4—Hunting methods Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 34 (b) ensures that any person accompanying the gundogs being trained— (i) is not carrying or using any firearm other than a starter's pistol or a shotgun with blank ammunition; and (ii) is not in possession of any cartridge ammunition. (9) Subregulation (6) does not apply to a person who, when using, hunting, taking or destroying game birds during an open season for game birds, causes or permits a dog that is not a gundog to be used under and in accordance with a written permission from the Game Management Authority. (10) Subregulation (6) does not apply to a person who is— (a) carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or (b) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; or (c) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order. (11) For the purposes of subregulations (2)(b) and (7)(b), the Game Management Authority may approve an organisation to conduct field trials for gundogs. 42 Use of dogs for hunting deer (1) A person must not use a dog for hunting deer other than— (a) a registered hound for the purpose of trailing Sambar Deer; or Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 4—Hunting methods Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 35 (b) a gundog for the purpose of locating, pointing or flushing deer (other than Hog Deer); or (c) a deer hunting dog for the purpose of locating or flushing deer (other than Hog Deer). Penalty: 20 penalty units. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who has written permission given by the Game Management Authority to use a dog other than a dog referred to in subregulation (1) for hunting deer. (3) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who is— (a) carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or (b) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; or (c) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order. 43 Hunting alone for deer (other than Hog Deer) with dogs that are not hounds (1) A person hunting alone for deer (other than Hog Deer), for the purpose of locating, pointing or flushing that deer, must not use more than— (a) 2 gundogs listed in Part 1 of Schedule 4; or (b) 2 deer hunting dogs listed in Part 3 of Schedule 4; or Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 4—Hunting methods Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 36 (c) one gundog listed in Part 1 of Schedule 4 and one deer hunting dog listed in Part 3 of Schedule 4. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who is— (a) carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or (b) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; or (c) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order. 44 Hunting in a team for deer (other than Hog Deer) with dogs that are not hounds (1) A person hunting in a team for deer (other than Hog Deer), for the purpose of locating, pointing or flushing that deer, must ensure that the team does not use more than— (a) 2 gundogs listed in Part 1 of Schedule 4; or (b) 2 deer hunting dogs listed in Part 3 of Schedule 4; or (c) one gundog listed in Part 1 of Schedule 4 and one deer hunting dog listed in Part 3 of Schedule 4. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who is— (a) carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 4—Hunting methods Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 37 (b) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; or (c) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order. 45 Dogs must not attack, bite or maim wildlife A person who uses a hound, gundog or deer hunting dog for hunting deer must ensure that the hound, gundog or deer hunting dog does not attack, bite or maim wildlife. Penalty: 20 penalty units. 46 Use of dogs in recognised deer habitat (1) A person who is hunting on public land in recognised deer habitat must not have in the person's care or control a dog that is not a hound, gundog or deer hunting dog unless the dog is restrained or confined. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who has written permission given by the Game Management Authority to have a dog other than a hound, gundog or deer hunting dog in the person's care or control while hunting on public land in recognised deer habitat. (3) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who is— (a) carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or (b) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; or Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 4—Hunting methods Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 38 (c) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order. 47 Location of hound while hunting Sambar Deer (1) A hound possessor who is hunting or taking Sambar Deer with the use of hounds must ensure that none of those hounds is found on private land, unless the hound possessor has permission from the owner or occupier of the private land to hunt or take Sambar Deer with the use of hounds on that land. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (2) A hound possessor who is hunting or taking Sambar Deer with the use of hounds must ensure that none of those hounds is found in a park, other than in accordance with the National Parks Act 1975. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (3) A hound possessor who is hunting or taking Sambar Deer with the use of hounds must ensure that none of those hounds is found in any area prohibited by these Regulations or in any other area closed under Part XI of the Act. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (4) Subregulations (2) and (3) do not apply to a person who is— (a) carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or (b) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; or (c) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 4—Hunting methods Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 39 (5) Subregulation (3) does not apply to a hound possessor if the hound possessor has written permission given by the Secretary to hunt or take Sambar Deer with the use of hounds in the area in which the hound is found. 48 Hound must be identified (1) A person who uses a registered hound for hunting Sambar Deer must ensure that the hound is wearing a collar to which is securely attached a permanent tag or label on which is legibly printed— (a) the full name of the hound owner; and (b) the hound registration number of the hound issued by the Game Management Authority. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who is— (a) carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or (b) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; or (c) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order. Division 3—General 49 Use of spotlights for hunting (1) A person must not use a spotlight to hunt or take game. Penalty: 20 penalty units. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 4—Hunting methods Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 40 (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to the use of a hand-held thermo-imaging device that is not mounted on a firearm. (3) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who is— (a) carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or (b) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; or (c) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order. 50 Game fleeing from fire or smoke not to be hunted (1) A person must not hunt, take or destroy game that is fleeing from fire or smoke. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who is— (a) carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or (b) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; or (c) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order. 51 Hunting at night prohibited (1) A person must not hunt, take or destroy game during the period commencing 30 minutes after sunset on any day and ending 30 minutes before sunrise on the next day. Penalty: 20 penalty units. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 4—Hunting methods Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 41 (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who is— (a) carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or (b) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; or (c) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order. 52 Additional prohibited hunting times—ducks (1) Despite regulation 33, a person must not hunt ducks during the period on the first 5 days of the open season for ducks, commencing 30 minutes before sunrise and ending at 8 a.m. on each of these days. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who is— (a) carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or (b) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; or (c) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order. 53 Use of baits, lures and decoys when hunting game (1) A person must not hunt, take or destroy game using any bait, lure (including an electronic acoustic lure), decoy or live animal to attract game. Penalty: 20 penalty units. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 4—Hunting methods Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 42 (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who hunts, takes or destroys— (a) game (including duck) using either of the following that is not an electronic acoustic lure— (i) a decoy made or constructed to resemble or represent a waterbird; (ii) a call resembling the call of that game; or (b) duck using a call resembling the call of duck that is an electronic acoustic lure; or (c) deer using a deer decoy that is painted or fixed with a fluorescent orange colour that is highly visible on the heart, lungs or torso of the deer of a cumulative area no smaller than 0·25 square metres. (3) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who is— (a) carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or (b) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; or (c) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order. (4) A person must not cause, permit or assist in the hunting, taking or destroying of game using any bait, lure (including an electronic acoustic lure), decoy or live animal to attract game. Penalty: 20 penalty units. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 4—Hunting methods Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 43 (5) Subregulation (4) does not apply to a person who causes, permits or assists in the hunting, taking or destroying of— (a) a game bird using either of the following that is not an electronic acoustic lure— (i) a decoy made or constructed to resemble or represent a waterbird; or (ii) any call resembling the call of game that is not an electronic acoustic lure; or (b) duck using a call resembling the call of duck that is an electronic acoustic lure; or (c) deer using a deer decoy that is painted or fixed with a fluorescent orange colour that is highly visible on the heart, lungs or torso of the deer of a cumulative area no smaller than 0·25 square metres. (6) Subregulation (4) does not apply to a person who is— (a) carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or (b) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; or (c) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order. 54 Aircraft and motor vehicles not to be used for hunting game (1) A person must not hunt, take or destroy game from an aircraft or motor vehicle. Penalty: 20 penalty units. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 4—Hunting methods Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 44 (2) A person must not cause, permit or assist in the hunting, taking or destroying of game from an aircraft or motor vehicle. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (3) Subregulations (1) and (2) do not apply to a person who is— (a) carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or (b) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; or (c) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order. 55 Hunting duck from motor boats prohibited (1) A person must not hunt, take or destroy duck from a motor boat when the motor on that boat is running (whether in gear or not). Penalty: 20 penalty units. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who hunts, takes or destroys duck from— (a) a motor boat under power which is operating at a speed of 5 knots or less in any waterway; or (b) a motor boat under power which is operating at a speed of 5 knots or less for the purpose of retrieving a dead or wounded duck. (3) A person must not cause, permit or assist in the hunting, taking or destroying of duck from a motor boat when the motor on that boat is running (whether in gear or not). Penalty: 20 penalty units. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 4—Hunting methods Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 45 (4) Subregulation (3) does not apply to a person who causes, permits or assists in the hunting, taking or destroying of duck from— (a) a motor boat under power which is operating at a speed of 5 knots or less in any waterway; or (b) a motor boat under power which is operating at a speed of 5 knots or less for the purpose of retrieving a dead or wounded duck. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 5—Possession and handling of game Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 46 Part 5—Possession and handling of game 56 Game alive when recovered A person who takes game which is alive when recovered must immediately kill that game. Penalty: 20 penalty units. 57 Downed game birds to be recovered A person who hunts, takes or destroys a game bird must make all reasonable efforts to recover the downed game bird immediately after the bird is struck. Penalty: 20 penalty units. 58 Deer alive when struck If a person strikes a deer by use of a firearm, bow or crossbow and the deer is alive after being struck, the person must make all reasonable efforts to immediately kill that deer. Penalty: 20 penalty units 59 Breast meat of game bird to be kept in possession (1) Subject to subregulation (2), a person who hunts, takes or destroys a game bird must keep the meat of both breasts of the game bird in the person's possession until— (a) immediately before cooking that game bird; or (b) that game bird has been taken to the person's place of residence. Penalty: 20 penalty units. Note Regulation 60 sets out certain requirements in relation to the possession of duck. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 5—Possession and handling of game Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 47 (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply if the meat on the breast of a game bird cannot be eaten because of the way that the game bird was hunted, taken or destroyed. (3) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who is— (a) carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or (b) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; or (c) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order. 60 Possession of duck (1) A person who has in the person's possession any taxon of duck must leave one fully feathered wing attached to the duck, or duck breast, or duck breasts, until— (a) immediately before cooking that duck; or (b) that duck has been taken to the person's place of residence. Penalty: 5 penalty units. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who is— (a) carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or (b) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; or (c) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 5—Possession and handling of game Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 48 61 Storage of game on commercial premises (1) A person who has game in the person's possession or control in any shop, commercial premises or business premises must comply with the following conditions— (a) the game must be contained within a bag or receptacle; (b) the bag or receptacle containing the game must have a tag securely attached on which the following details are written legibly— (i) the name and address of the owner of the game; (ii) the date on which the game was placed in the shop, commercial premises or business premises; (iii) the game licence number under which the game was taken. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who has game in the person's possession or control in any part of a shop, commercial premises or business premises that is used primarily for domestic purposes. (3) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who has game listed in Part 1 or 4 of Schedule 2 in the person's possession or control in any part of a shop, commercial premises or business if the game was obtained from a commercial farm. (4) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who has game listed in Part 1 of Schedule 2 in the person's possession or control in any part of a shop, commercial premises or business premises if— Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 5—Possession and handling of game Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 49 (a) the game was legally obtained from a person who is— (i) acting in accordance with an Order under section 7A of the Act; or (ii) the holder of a licence under section 22 of the Act and acting in accordance with that licence; or (iii) the holder of an authorisation under section 28A of the Act and acting in accordance with that authorisation; or (iv) acting in accordance with an authorisation order made under section 28G of the Act; and (b) the game is accompanied by documentation or a tag that identifies in a legible manner— (i) the name and address of the person from whom the game was sourced; and (ii) the address of the property or location from which the game was sourced; and (iii) the date on which the game was placed in the shop, commercial premises or business premises. 62 Game prohibited on commercial premises where food is cooked (1) A person must not have any game in the person's possession or control on commercial premises in which food is cooked or served other than— (a) game listed in Part 4 of Schedule 2 that has been obtained from a game bird farm; or (b) game listed in Part 4 of Schedule 2 that has been obtained from a commercial farm for game birds; or Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 5—Possession and handling of game Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 50 (c) game listed in Part 1 of Schedule 2 that has been obtained from— (i) a commercial farm; or (ii) a meat processing facility licensed under the Meat Industry Act 1993; or (d) game that has been obtained from a wildlife processor licensed under a corresponding law of another State or a Territory. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who— (a) is a member or acts on behalf of an organisation that has been given written permission by the Game Management Authority to have game referred to in subregulation (1) in its possession or control; and (b) has that game in the person's possession or control on commercial premises in which food is cooked or served. 63 Sale of game prohibited unless obtained lawfully (1) A person must not sell, or expose for sale, any game. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to any person who— (a) holds one of the following which entitles the person to sell any taxon of wildlife declared to be game— (i) a licence issued under section 22 of the Act; Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 5—Possession and handling of game Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 51 (ii) an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; (iii) an authorisation order; and (b) is acting in accordance with that licence, authorisation or order. (3) Subregulation (1) does not apply to any person who receives game from a commercial source that is authorised under the laws of another State or a Territory to sell the game. (4) Subregulation (1) does not apply to any owner of game that has been legally obtained and has legally undergone taxidermy. (5) Subregulation (1) does not apply to any person who has taken and destroyed game listed in Part 1 of Schedule 2 in accordance with an Order under section 7A of the Act. (6) Subregulation (1) does not apply to the operator of a meat processing facility licensed under the Meat Industry Act 1993 who legally obtains game listed in Part 1 of Schedule 2 from a person referred to in subregulation (2) or (5). Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 6—Hog Deer and Hog Deer tags Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 52 Part 6—Hog Deer and Hog Deer tags Division 1—Hog Deer 64 Hog Deer in possession must be tagged (1) A person must not have the body of any female Hog Deer in the person's possession unless a Hog Deer tag marked with the letter "F"— (a) is attached to one of the hind legs; or (b) has been removed from the body of the deer in accordance with regulation 67. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (2) A person must not have the body of any male Hog Deer in the person's possession unless a Hog Deer tag marked with the letter "M"— (a) is attached to one of the hind legs; or (b) has been removed from the body of the deer in accordance with regulation 67. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (3) Subregulations (1) and (2) do not apply to a person who is— (a) carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or (b) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; or (c) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 6—Hog Deer and Hog Deer tags Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 53 65 Requirement to attach tags to Hog Deer killed (1) A person who kills a Hog Deer must immediately attach a Hog Deer tag to one of the hind legs of the deer in the following manner— (a) the tag must be attached above the hock by inserting the end of the tag between the main bone of the leg and the main tendon; and (b) the tag must then completely encircle the main bone and must be securely locked in position. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who is— (a) carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or (b) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; or (c) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order. 66 Hog Deer not to be removed until tag is attached (1) A person who kills any Hog Deer must not remove the Hog Deer from where it has been killed unless a Hog Deer tag is attached to one of its hind legs in accordance with regulation 65. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who is— (a) carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 6—Hog Deer and Hog Deer tags Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 54 (b) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; or (c) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order. 67 Removal of Hog Deer tags A person must not remove the Hog Deer tag from the body of any Hog Deer to which a Hog Deer tag has been attached until— (a) the body of that deer has been taken to a checking station in accordance with regulation 69(3)(a) by the holder of the game licence under the authority of which the Hog Deer was taken; and (b) any biological sample required under regulation 69(3)(b) has been given. Penalty: 20 penalty units. 68 Removal of Hog Deer head and dismemberment (1) A person must not remove the head of or dismember any Hog Deer that has been killed without written permission from the Game Management Authority until— (a) the body of that deer has been taken to a checking station in accordance with regulation 69(3)(a) by the holder of the game licence under the authority of which the Hog Deer was taken; and (b) any biological sample required under regulation 69(3)(b) has been given. Penalty: 20 penalty units. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 6—Hog Deer and Hog Deer tags Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 55 (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who is— (a) carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or (b) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; or (c) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order. 69 Hog Deer carcass to be taken to checking station (1) The Game Management Authority may nominate places, to be known as checking stations, for the purposes of recording biological, physical and other information about Hog Deer taken. (2) The Game Management Authority must publish a notice in the Government Gazette giving details of the location and opening times of the checking stations. (3) A person who takes a Hog Deer during the open season for Hog Deer must— (a) within 24 hours of the taking of the Hog Deer, take the Hog Deer carcass to a checking station nominated under subregulation (1) during the hours that the checking station is open for business; and (b) provide any biological sample from the Hog Deer carcass that is requested by the Game Management Authority for the purpose of examination for any disease, disorder or other physical condition of the Hog Deer. Penalty: 20 penalty units. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 6—Hog Deer and Hog Deer tags Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 56 (4) Subregulation (3) does not apply to a person who is— (a) carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or (b) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; or (c) carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order. Division 2—Hog Deer tags 70 Application for Hog Deer tags (1) A person who applies for Hog Deer tags must do so in a manner determined by the Game Management Authority. (2) The Game Management Authority may require a person who applies for Hog Deer tags to provide evidence that the person holds a game licence. 71 Issue of Hog Deer tags The Game Management Authority may issue 2 Hog Deer tags per year as follows to a person who holds a game licence that authorises the person to hunt, take or destroy Hog Deer— (a) one Hog Deer tag for hunting, taking or destroying a male Hog Deer; (b) one Hog Deer tag for hunting, taking or destroying a female Hog Deer. 72 Validity of Hog Deer tags A Hog Deer tag is valid only for the year for which it is issued. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 6—Hog Deer and Hog Deer tags Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 57 73 Hog Deer tags to be in possession A person to whom Hog Deer tags have been issued must not hunt, take or destroy Hog Deer during the year for which those Hog Deer tags were issued without having in the person's possession— (a) if the person has not taken any Hog Deer in that year, 2 Hog Deer tags, one marked with the letter "F" for female and one marked with the letter "M" for male; or (b) if the person has taken one Hog Deer in that year, one Hog Deer tag marked with the letter of the sex of Hog Deer that has not been taken by the person. Penalty: 20 penalty units. 74 Hog Deer tags not to be sold etc. A person to whom a Hog Deer tag has been issued must not sell, give, lend or transfer that Hog Deer tag to any other person. Penalty: 20 penalty units. 75 Hog Deer tags not to be altered, defaced or reproduced A person must not alter, deface or reproduce a Hog Deer tag. Penalty: 20 penalty units. 76 Hog Deer return forms (1) A person to whom Hog Deer tags have been issued must give to the Game Management Authority a complete and accurate return in accordance with this regulation for the year for which those Hog Deer tags were issued. Penalty: 10 penalty units. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 6—Hog Deer and Hog Deer tags Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 58 (2) A return under subregulation (1) must include the following details— (a) the person's name and address; (b) the game licence number of the licence under which the Hog Deer tags have been issued; (c) if the person has taken any Hog Deer in that year, where and when the person took the Hog Deer; (d) the amount of time the person spent hunting for Hog Deer; (e) any other details that the Game Management Authority requires in relation to the taking of Hog Deer by the person. (3) A return under subregulation (1) must be— (a) in the form determined by the Game Management Authority; and (b) given to the Game Management Authority within 28 days after the last day of the open season for Hog Deer in that year. (4) For the purposes of subregulations (2)(e) and (3)(a), the Game Management Authority may determine details required in a return under subregulation (1) and the form of that return. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 7—Specified hunting areas and specified times—open season for duck Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 59 Part 7—Specified hunting areas and specified times—open season for duck 77 Specified hunting areas For the purposes of section 58C(2) of the Act, the following are declared to be specified hunting areas— (a) the waters of any State Game Reserve and the land within 25 metres of the water shoreline of those waters; (b) the waters of the hunting areas described in Schedule 7 and the land within 25 metres of the water shoreline of those waters. 78 Prohibited entry times For the purposes of section 58C(1)(d) of the Act, a person to whom section 58C(1) applies must not enter on or remain in any specified hunting area on the first 5 days of the open season for ducks from the beginning of each day until 11 a.m. on that day. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 8—Deer hunting areas Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 60 Part 8—Deer hunting areas 79 Prohibited deer hunting areas (1) A person must not hunt, take or destroy deer within the areas of Victoria shown by shading on the plans in Parts 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 of Schedule 8. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to— (a) a person carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or (b) a person carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation given under section 28A of the Act; or (c) a person carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order; or (d) a person who is an owner or occupier of private land when hunting, taking or destroying deer on that private land; or (e) a person who has permission given by the owner or occupier of private land to hunt, take or destroy deer on that private land, when doing so on that private land. 80 Areas for hunting Sambar Deer with the use of hounds (1) A person must not hunt or take Sambar Deer with the use of hounds or destroy Sambar Deer in any area of Victoria. Penalty: 20 penalty units. (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply to a person who hunts or takes Sambar Deer with the use of hounds or destroys Sambar Deer— (a) within the permitted hunting area; or Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Part 8—Deer hunting areas Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 61 (b) within the areas shown by shading on the plans in Parts 3 and 4 of Schedule 9 if the person— (i) is an owner or occupier of private land when hunting or taking Sambar Deer with the use of hounds or destroying Sambar Deer on that private land; or (ii) has permission given by the owner or occupier of private land to hunt or take Sambar Deer with the use of hounds or destroy Sambar Deer on that private land, when doing so on that private land; or (c) who is carrying out an activity in accordance with an Order made under section 7A of the Act; or (d) who is carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation made under section 28A of the Act; or (e) who is carrying out an activity in accordance with an authorisation order. (3) In this regulation— permitted hunting area means the area shown by shading on the plan in Part 1 of Schedule 9 (part of the boundary of which is shown in greater detail on the plans in Parts 2, 3 and 4 of Schedule 9). Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Schedule 1—Close seasons for game Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 62 Schedule 1—Close seasons for game Regulation 32 Common name Scientific name Close season Part 1—Deer Hog Deer Axis porcinus From 30 minutes after sunset on 30 April in each year until 30 minutes before sunrise on 1 April in the next year. Sambar Deer Cervus unicolor When hunted or taken with the use of hounds or destroyed— (a) from 30 minutes after sunset on 30 November in each year to 30 minutes before sunrise on 1 April in the next year; and (b) if Easter Sunday is in April, in the next year, to the extent not already covered in paragraph (a), from 30 minutes after sunset on the Thursday before Easter Sunday until 30 minutes before sunrise on the Thursday after Easter Sunday. Part 2—Indigenous game birds (quail) Stubble Quail Coturnix pectoralis From 30 minutes after sunset on the last day in June in each year to 30 minutes before sunrise on the first Saturday in April in the next year. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Schedule 1—Close seasons for game Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 63 Common name Scientific name Close season Part 3—Indigenous game birds (waterfowl) Pacific Black Duck Chestnut Teal Grey Teal Hardhead (White-eyed) Duck Australian Shelduck (Mountain Duck) Pink-eared Duck Australian Wood Duck (Maned Duck) Anas superciliosa Anas castanea Anas gracilis Aythya australis Tadorna tadornoides Malacorhynchus membranaceus Chenonetta jubata                  From 30 minutes after sunset on the second Monday in June in each year until 8 a.m. on the third Wednesday in March in the next year. Australasian (Blue-winged) Shoveler Anas rhynchotis For the whole of each year. Part 4—Indigenous game birds (other) Latham's (Japanese or Jack) Snipe Gallinago hardwickii For the whole of each year. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Schedule 2—Open seasons for game Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 64 Schedule 2—Open seasons for game Regulations 22, 33, 61(3) and (4), 62(1) and 63(5) and (6) Common name Scientific name Open season Part 1—Deer Chital Deer Axis axis For the whole of each year. Fallow Deer Dama dama For the whole of each year. Hog Deer Axis porcinus From 30 minutes before sunrise on 1 April until 30 minutes after sunset on 30 April in each year. Red Deer Cervus elaphus For the whole of each year. Rusa Deer Cervus timorensis For the whole of each year. Sambar Deer Cervus unicolor When not hunted or taken with the use of hounds, for the whole of each year. When hunted or taken with the use of hound or destroyed— (a) from 30 minutes before sunrise on 1 April until 30 minutes after sunset on 30 November in each year; or (b) if Easter Sunday falls in April, 30 minutes before sunrise on the first Thursday after Easter Sunday until 30 minutes after sunset on 30 November in each year. Part 2—Indigenous game birds (quail) Stubble Quail Coturnix pectoralis From 30 minutes before sunrise on the first Saturday in April until 30 minutes after sunset on 30 June in each year. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Schedule 2—Open seasons for game Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 65 Common name Scientific name Open season Part 3—Indigenous game birds (waterfowl) Pacific Black Duck Chestnut Teal Grey Teal Hardhead (White-eyed Duck) Australian Shelduck (Mountain Duck) Pink-eared Duck Australian Wood Duck (Maned Duck) Anas superciliosa Anas castanea Anas gracilis Aythya australis Tadorna tadornoides Malacorhynchus membranaceus Chenonetta jubata                   From 8 a.m. of the third Wednesday in March in each year until 30 minutes after sunset on the second Monday in June in each year. Part 4—Non-indigenous game birds Pheasant Partridge European Quail Japanese Quail Californian Quail Phasianus spp. Alectoris and Perdix spp. Coturnix coturnix Coturnix japonica Lophortyx californicus              For the whole of each year. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Schedule 3—Bag limits for game Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 66 Schedule 3—Bag limits for game Regulation 34 Column 1 Column 2 Column 3 Column 4 Item number Common name Scientific name Bag limit 1. Chital Deer Axis axis No limit. 2. Fallow Deer Dama dama No limit. 3. Hog Deer Axis porcinus A maximum of one male and one female during an open season. 4. Red Deer Cervus elaphus No limit. 5. Rusa Deer Cervus timorensis No limit. 6. Sambar Deer Cervus unicolor No limit. 7. Stubble Quail Coturnix pectoralis A maximum of 20 quails on any day during an open season. 8. Pacific Black Duck Anas superciliosa                        A maximum of 10 ducks on any day during an open season. 9. Chestnut Teal Anas castanea 10. Grey Teal Anas gracilis 11. Hardhead (White-eyed Duck) Aythya australis 12. Australian Shelduck (Mountain Duck) Tadorna tadornoides 13. Pink-eared Duck Malacorhynchus membranaceus 14. Australian Wood Duck (Maned Duck) Chenonetta jubata Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Schedule 3—Bag limits for game Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 67 Column 1 Column 2 Column 3 Column 4 Item number Common name Scientific name Bag limit 15. Pheasants Phasianus spp.              No limit. 16. Partridges Alectoris and Perdix spp. 17. European Quail Coturnix coturnix 18. Japanese Quail Coturnix japonica 19. Californian Quail Lophortyx californicus Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Schedule 4—Approved dogs for hunting Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 68 Schedule 4—Approved dogs for hunting Regulations 5, 26(1), 43(1) and 44(1) Part 1—Gundogs Bracco Italiano Brittany Spaniel (Epagneul Breton) Chesapeake Bay Retriever Clumber Spaniel Cocker Spaniel Cocker Spaniel (American) Curly Coated Retriever English Setter English Springer Spaniel Field Spaniel Flat Coated Retriever German Shorthaired Pointer German Wirehaired Pointer (Deutsch Drahthaar) Golden Retriever Gordon Setter Hungarian Vizsla Hungarian Wirehair Vizsla Irish Red and White Setter Irish Setter Irish Water Spaniel Italian Spinone Labrador Retriever Lagotto Romagnolo Large Munsterlander Murray River Retriever Nova Scotia Duck Tolling Retriever Pointer Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Schedule 4—Approved dogs for hunting Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 69 Sussex Spaniel Weimaraner Weimaraner (longhair) Welsh Springer Spaniel Wirehaired Slovakian Pointer Part 2—Hounds Column 1 Breed Column 2 Maximum height measured at withers Bloodhound 69 centimetres Beagle 40 centimetres Harrier 535 centimetres Part 3—Deer hunting dogs Border Terrier Dachshund Finnish Spitz Fox Terrier (smooth) Fox Terrier (wire) German Hunting Terrier (Jagd Terrier) Jack Russell Terrier Norwegian Elkhound Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Schedule 5—Recognised deer habitat Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 70 Schedule 5—Recognised deer habitat Regulation 5 All Crown land in the municipal districts of the following Councils— Alpine Shire Council Ararat Rural City Council Baw Baw Shire Council Benalla Rural City Council Cardinia Shire Council Colac-Otway Shire Council Corangamite Shire Council East Gippsland Shire Council Glenelg Shire Council Horsham Rural City Council Mansfield Shire Council Mitchell Shire Council Moyne Shire Council Murrindindi Shire Council Northern Grampians Shire Council Pyrenees Shire Council South Gippsland Shire Council Southern Grampians Shire Council Strathbogie Shire Council Towong Shire Council Wangaratta Rural City Council Wellington Shire Council West Wimmera Shire Council Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Schedule 5—Recognised deer habitat Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 71 Whittlesea City Council Yarra Ranges Shire Council Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Schedule 6—Shot which is not toxic shot Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 72 Schedule 6—Shot which is not toxic shot Regulation 5 Shot commonly known by the description set out in Column 1 and constituted by percentage composition by weight as described in the corresponding part of Column 2 Column 1* Column 2 Bismuth-tin Copper-clad iron Corrosion-inhibited copper (a) at least 97 per cent by weight bismuth; and (b) not more than 3 per cent by weight tin. 84 to 5659 per cent by weight iron core and copper cladding up to 441 per cent by weight. Not less than 999 per cent by weight copper with benzotriazole and thermoplastic fluorescent power coatings. Iron (steel) Any per cent by weight iron and carbon. Iron-tungsten (a) any per cent by weight tungsten; and (b) not more than 1 per cent by weight iron. Iron-tungsten-nickel (a) any per cent by weight tungsten; and (b) not more than 40 per cent by weight nickel; and (c) not more than 1 per cent by weight iron. Tungsten-bronze (a) 511 per cent by weight tungsten, 444 per cent by weight copper and 06 per cent by weight iron; or (b) 60 per cent by weight tungsten, 351 per cent by weight copper, 39 per cent by weight tin and 1 per cent by weight of iron. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Schedule 6—Shot which is not toxic shot Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 73 Column 1* Column 2 Tungsten-iron-copper-nickel (a) not less than 40 per cent and not more than 76 per cent by weight tungsten; and (b) not less than 10 per cent and not more than 37 per cent by weight iron; and (c) not less than 9 per cent and not more than 16 per cent by weight copper; and (d) not less than 5 per cent and not more than 7 per cent weight nickel. Tungsten-matrix 959 per cent by weight tungsten and 41 per cent by weight polymer. Tungsten-polymer 955 per cent by weight tungsten and 45 per cent by weight Nylon 6 or 11. Tungsten-tin-iron (a) any per cent by weight tungsten and tin; and (b) with not more than 1 per cent by weight iron. Tungsten-tin-bismuth Any per cent by weight tungsten, tin, and bismuth. Tungsten-tin-iron-nickel (a) 65 per cent by weight tungsten; and (b) 218 per cent by weight tin; and (c) 104 per cent by weight iron; and (d) 28 per cent by weight nickel. Tungsten-iron-polymer (a) not less than 415 per cent and not more than 952 per cent by weight tungsten; and (b) not less than 15 per cent and not more than 52 per cent by weight iron; and (c) not less than 36 per cent and not more than 8 per cent by weight fluropolymer. * coatings of copper, nickel, tin, zinc, zinc chloride and zinc chrome on shot is non-toxic. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Schedule 7—Specified hunting areas Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 74 Schedule 7—Specified hunting areas Regulation 77 Area Municipal district of the Council of Backwater Morass Wellington and East Gippsland Browns Lake (Cope Cope) Buloke Cullens Lake Gannawarra Cundare Pool Colac-Otway Fosters Swamp Gannawarra Grassy Lake Buloke Green Lake Campaspe Lake Batyo Catyo Northern Grampians Lake Boort Loddon Lake Buloke Buloke Lake Charm Gannawarra Lake Colongulac Corangamite Lake Coradgill Corangamite Lake Gnarpurt Corangamite Lake Kakydra Wellington Lake Kanagulk Horsham Lake Kelly Gannawarra Lake Lalbert Gannawarra Lake Leaghur Loddon Lake Lyndger Loddon Lake MacDonald Gannawarra Lake Marmal Loddon Lake Martin Corangamite and Colac-Otway Lake Melanhydra Wellington Lake Murphy Gannawarra Lake Nillahcootie Delatite Lake Nurrumbeet Buloke Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Schedule 7—Specified hunting areas Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 75 Area Municipal district of the Council of Lake Reeve Wellington Lake Tutchewop Gannawarra Lake William Gnangara Little Lake Buloke Buloke Little Lake Charm Gannawarra Loch Garry Greater Shepparton Meridian Road Basins Mildura Morley Swamp Wellington Racecourse Lake Campaspe Red Morass Wellington Town Swamp Gannawarra Two Tree Swamp Campaspe Victoria Lagoon Wellington Wooroonook Lakes Buloke Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Schedule 8—Prohibited deer hunting areas Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 76 Schedule 8—Prohibited deer hunting areas Regulation 79(1) Part 1—Warburton and surrounds Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Schedule 8—Prohibited deer hunting areas Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 77 Part 2—Rubicon and surrounds Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Schedule 8—Prohibited deer hunting areas Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 78 Part 3—Halls Gap and surrounds Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Schedule 8—Prohibited deer hunting areas Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 79 Part 4—Warburton township Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Schedule 8—Prohibited deer hunting areas Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 80 Part 5—Mount Timbertop area Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Schedule 9—Hunting Sambar Deer with the use of hounds Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 81 Schedule 9—Hunting Sambar Deer with the use of hounds Regulation 80(2) and (3) Part 1—Eastern Victoria Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Schedule 9—Hunting Sambar Deer with the use of hounds Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 82 Part 2—Marysville and surrounds Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Schedule 9—Hunting Sambar Deer with the use of hounds Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 83 Part 3—Jamieson and surrounds Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Schedule 9—Hunting Sambar Deer with the use of hounds Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 84 Part 4—Merrijig and surrounds Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Schedule 10—Game birds Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 85 Schedule 10—Game birds Regulation 5 Part 1—Indigenous game birds (quail) Column 1 Common name Column 2 Scientific name Stubble Quail Coturnix pectoralis Part 2—Indigenous game birds (waterfowl) Pacific Black Duck Australasian (Blue-winged) Shoveler Chestnut Teal Grey Teal Hardhead (White-eyed Duck) Australian Shelduck (Mountain Duck) Pink-eared Duck Australian Wood Duck (Maned Duck) Anas superciliosa Anas rhynchotis Anas castanea Anas gracilis Aythya australis Tadorna tadornoides Malacorhynchus membranaceus Chenonetta jubata Part 3—Indigenous game birds (other) Latham's (Japanese or Jack) Snipe Gallinago hardwickii Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Schedule 10—Game birds Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 86 Part 4—Non-indigenous game birds Column 1 Common Name Column 2 Scientific Name Pheasant Partridge European Quail Japanese Quail Californian Quail Phasianus spp. Alectoris and Perdix spp. Coturnix coturnix Coturnix japonica Lophortyx californicus ═════════════ Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Endnotes Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 87 Endnotes 1 General information See www.legislation.vic.gov.au for Victorian Bills, Acts and current authorised versions of legislation and up-to-date legislative information. The Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024, S.R. No. 81/2024 were made on 3 September 2024 by the Governor in Council under sections 22A, 58C and 87 of the Wildlife Act 1975, No. 8699/1975 and came into operation on 7 September 2024: regulation 3. The Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 will sunset 10 years after the day of making on 3 September 2034 (see section 5 of the Subordinate Legislation Act 1994). INTERPRETATION OF LEGISLATION ACT 1984 (ILA) Style changes Section 54A of the ILA authorises the making of the style changes set out in Schedule 1 to that Act. References to ILA s. 39B Sidenotes which cite ILA s. 39B refer to section 39B of the ILA which provides that where an undivided regulation, rule or clause of a Schedule is amended by the insertion of one or more subregulations, subrules or subclauses the original regulation, rule or clause becomes subregulation, subrule or subclause (1) and is amended by the insertion of the expression "(1)" at the beginning of the original regulation, rule or clause. Interpretation As from 1 January 2001, amendments to section 36 of the ILA have the following effects: • Headings All headings included in a Statutory Rule which is made on or after 1 January 2001 form part of that Statutory Rule. Any heading inserted in a Statutory Rule which was made before 1 January 2001, by a Statutory Rule made on or after 1 January 2001, forms part of that Statutory Rule. This includes headings to Parts, Divisions or Subdivisions in a Schedule; Orders; Parts into which an Order is divided; clauses; regulations; rules; items; tables; columns; examples; diagrams; notes or forms. See section 36(1A)(2A)(2B). • Examples, diagrams or notes All examples, diagrams or notes included in a Statutory Rule which is made on or after 1 January 2001 form part of that Statutory Rule. Any examples, diagrams or notes inserted in a Statutory Rule which was made before http://www.legislation.vic.gov.au/ Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Endnotes Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 88 1 January 2001, by a Statutory Rule made on or after 1 January 2001, form part of that Statutory Rule. See section 36(3A). • Punctuation All punctuation included in a Statutory Rule which is made on or after 1 January 2001 forms part of that Statutory Rule. Any punctuation inserted in a Statutory Rule which was made before 1 January 2001, by a Statutory Rule made on or after 1 January 2001, forms part of that Statutory Rule. See section 36(3B). • Provision numbers All provision numbers included in a Statutory Rule form part of that Statutory Rule, whether inserted in the Statutory Rule before, on or after 1 January 2001. Provision numbers include regulation numbers, rule numbers, subregulation numbers, subrule numbers, paragraphs and subparagraphs. See section 36(3C). • Location of "legislative items" A "legislative item" is a penalty, an example or a note. As from 13 October 2004, a legislative item relating to a provision of a Statutory Rule is taken to be at the foot of that provision even if it is preceded or followed by another legislative item that relates to that provision. For example, if a penalty at the foot of a provision is followed by a note, both of these legislative items will be regarded as being at the foot of that provision. See section 36B. • Other material Any explanatory memorandum, table of provisions, endnotes, index and other material printed after the Endnotes does not form part of a Statutory Rule. See section 36(3)(3D)(3E). Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Endnotes Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 89 2 Table of Amendments There are no amendments made to the Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 by statutory rules, subordinate instruments and Acts. Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Endnotes Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 90 3 Explanatory details 1 Reg. 4: S.R. No. 97/2023. 2 Reg. 5 def. of game bird farm: S.R. No. 45/2024. 3 Reg. 5 def. of spotlight paragraph (g): S.R. No. 116/2021 as amended by S.R. Nos 47/2022, 51/2022, 129/2022, 130/2022, 53/2023, 54/2023, 67/2023 and 43/2024. 4 Reg. 26(1)(b): S.R. No. 136/2015 as amended by S.R. Nos 165/2015, 1/2018, 35/2018, 36/2019, 52/2020, 74/2022 and 77/2022. —— Fee Units These Regulations provide for fees by reference to fee units within the meaning of the Monetary Units Act 2004. The amount of the fee is to be calculated, in accordance with section 7 of that Act, by multiplying the number of fee units applicable by the value of a fee unit. The value of a fee unit for the financial year commencing 1 July 2024 is $16.33. The amount of the calculated fee may be rounded to the nearest 10 cents. The value of a fee unit for future financial years is to be fixed by the Treasurer under section 5 of the Monetary Units Act 2004. The value of a fee unit for a financial year must be published in the Government Gazette and a Victorian newspaper before 1 June in the preceding financial year. Penalty Units These Regulations provide for penalties by reference to penalty units within the meaning of section 110 of the Sentencing Act 1991. The amount of the penalty is to be calculated, in accordance with section 7 of the Monetary Units Act 2004, by multiplying the number of penalty units applicable by the value of a penalty unit. The value of a penalty unit for the financial year commencing 1 July 2024 is $197.59. The amount of the calculated penalty may be rounded to the nearest dollar. The value of a penalty unit for future financial years is to be fixed by the Treasurer under section 5 of the Monetary Units Act 2004. The value of a penalty unit for a financial year must be published in the Government Gazette and a Victorian newspaper before 1 June in the preceding financial year. —— Authorised by the Chief Parliamentary Counsel Endnotes Wildlife (Game) Regulations 2024 S.R. No. 81/2024 91 Table of Applied, Adopted or Incorporated Matter The following table of applied, adopted or incorporated matter was included in S.R. No. 81/2024 in accordance with the requirements of regulation 5 of the Subordinate Legislation Regulations 2024. Statutory rule provision Title of applied, adopted or incorporated document Matter in applied, adopted or incorporated document Regulation 5 (definition of hound, paragraph (b)) Extended Breed Standard of the Beagle published by the National Beagle Council (Australia) and the Australian National Kennel Council, last amended on 12 March 2012 The whole (other than any specification relating to height) Regulation 5 (definition of hound, paragraph (b)) Bloodhound Breed Standard published by the Australian National Kennel Council, last amended on 2 July 2009 The whole (other than any specification relating to height) Regulation 5 (definition of hound, paragraph (b)) Harrier Breed Standard published by the Australian National Kennel Council, last amended on 1 January 2001 The whole (other than any specification relating to height) Part 1—Preliminary 1 Objectives 2 Authorising provisions 3 Commencement 4 Revocation 5 Definitions 6 Application of these Regulations to traditional owner groups 7 Game Management Authority or Secretary may give written permission Part 2—Game licences Division 1—Applications, fees, licence documents and ballots 8 Application for a game licence 9 Game licence fees 10 Fee for variation of game licence 11 Issue of replacement game licence 12 Licence document 13 Change of address 14 Ballots Division 2—Testing 15 Granting of game licence for duck 16 Waterfowl Identification Test 17 Granting of game licence for hunting Sambar Deer with the use of hounds 18 Sambar Deer Hunting with Hounds Test Division 3—Exemptions from certain application requirements in specified cases 19 Exemption from requirement to undertake testing for non-residents of Australia 20 Exemption from requirement to undertake testing for certain applicants aged 12 years or over but under 18 years Division 4—Conditions of game licences 21 Condition of game licence that allows a person to hunt or take Sambar Deer with the use of hounds or to destroy Sambar Deer 22 Condition of game licence that allows a person to hunt, take or destroy non-indigenous game birds on a game bird farm 23 Condition of certain game licences that allow certain persons to hunt, take or destroy duck 24 Condition of certain game licences that allow certain persons to hunt or take Sambar Deer with the use of hounds or to destroy Sambar Deer Division 5—Hounds 25 Hounds used for hunting or taking Sambar Deer must be registered with the Game Management Authority 26 Registration of a hound 27 Change of ownership of registered hound 28 Presentation of hound to Game Management Authority for inspection 29 Game Management Authority may cancel registration of a hound 30 Game Management Authority may suspend registration of a hound 31 Making a submission on suspension of the registration of a hound and review of suspension Part 3—Open and close seasons and bag limits 32 Close season 33 Open season 34 Bag limit Part 4—Hunting methods Division 1—Use of firearms 35 Twelve-gauge shotgun to be used when hunting game birds 36 Use of toxic shot 37 Possession of toxic shot 38 Approved methods for hunting deer (other than Hog Deer, Chital Deer or Fallow Deer) 39 Approved methods for hunting Hog Deer, Chital Deer or Fallow Deer 40 Possession of spotlight and firearm Division 2—Use of dogs and hounds 41 Use of dogs when hunting game birds 42 Use of dogs for hunting deer 43 Hunting alone for deer (other than Hog Deer) with dogs that are not hounds 44 Hunting in a team for deer (other than Hog Deer) with dogs that are not hounds 45 Dogs must not attack, bite or maim wildlife 46 Use of dogs in recognised deer habitat 47 Location of hound while hunting Sambar Deer 48 Hound must be identified Division 3—General 49 Use of spotlights for hunting 50 Game fleeing from fire or smoke not to be hunted 51 Hunting at night prohibited 52 Additional prohibited hunting times—ducks 53 Use of baits, lures and decoys when hunting game 54 Aircraft and motor vehicles not to be used for hunting game 55 Hunting duck from motor boats prohibited Part 5—Possession and handling of game 56 Game alive when recovered 57 Downed game birds to be recovered 58 Deer alive when struck 59 Breast meat of game bird to be kept in possession 60 Possession of duck 61 Storage of game on commercial premises 62 Game prohibited on commercial premises where food is cooked 63 Sale of game prohibited unless obtained lawfully Part 6—Hog Deer and Hog Deer tags Division 1—Hog Deer 64 Hog Deer in possession must be tagged 65 Requirement to attach tags to Hog Deer killed 66 Hog Deer not to be removed until tag is attached 67 Removal of Hog Deer tags 68 Removal of Hog Deer head and dismemberment 69 Hog Deer carcass to be taken to checking station Division 2—Hog Deer tags 70 Application for Hog Deer tags 71 Issue of Hog Deer tags 72 Validity of Hog Deer tags 73 Hog Deer tags to be in possession 74 Hog Deer tags not to be sold etc. 75 Hog Deer tags not to be altered, defaced or reproduced 76 Hog Deer return forms Part 7—Specified hunting areas and specified times—open season for duck 77 Specified hunting areas 78 Prohibited entry times Part 8—Deer hunting areas 79 Prohibited deer hunting areas 80 Areas for hunting Sambar Deer with the use of hounds Schedule 1—Close seasons for game Schedule 2—Open seasons for game Schedule 3—Bag limits for game Schedule 4—Approved dogs for hunting Schedule 5—Recognised deer habitat Schedule 6—Shot which is not toxic shot Schedule 7—Specified hunting areas Schedule 8—Prohibited deer hunting areas Schedule 9—Hunting Sambar Deer with the use of hounds Schedule 10—Game birds Endnotes 1 General information 2 Table of Amendments 3 Explanatory details